Suppose one viewed the political argument of “fair share” as fair-share-units? That is, if one considers the fair share argument, that of transferring [redistribution], what about considering the argument in terms of transferring or redistribution of fair-share-units from some sort of production realm to some sort of recipient realm.
Putting aside one’s political view of redistribution, consider the following:
(1) In the abstract, regarding these units of fair share, is it possible that one would experience a production problem of fair-share-units as no incentive exists for production?
(2) On the consumption side of fair-share-units, would one experience a grand incentive to consume?
(3) Skipping by utility, marginal utility, production frontiers, etc. …. would there be any chance [using particular debate jargon of particular debaters] of these fair-share-units being affected by “greed” or “hoarding”?
(4) Would there exist a “1%” of fair-share-unit holders and the other “99%”?
(5) Would the consumption of fair-share-units create “envy” and lead to class warfare distinctions among those consuming fair-share-units?
(6) If fair-share-units, the production thereof, suffered problems, is it possible that fair-share-unit production would have to be “bailed out”?
Economics is the allocation of scarce resources with alternative uses. If the allocation thereof, with free participants in a free market is politically framed as greed, hoarding, 1% vs. 99%, envy, class warfare, and bail outs…. then the allocation process of fair-share-units would be otherwise?