Suppose one
viewed the political argument of “fair share” as fair-share-units? That is, if one considers the fair share argument, that of transferring [redistribution], what about considering the argument in terms of transferring or redistribution of
fair-share-units from some sort of production realm to some sort of recipient realm.
Putting aside one’s political view of redistribution, consider the following:
(1) In the abstract, regarding these
units of fair share, is it possible that one would experience a production
problem of fair-share-units as no incentive exists for production?
(2) On the consumption side of
fair-share-units, would one experience a grand incentive to consume?
(3) Skipping by utility, marginal
utility, production frontiers, etc. …. would there be any chance [using
particular debate jargon of particular debaters] of these fair-share-units
being affected by “greed” or “hoarding”?
(4) Would there exist a “1%” of
fair-share-unit holders and the other “99%”?
(5) Would the consumption of
fair-share-units create “envy” and lead to class warfare distinctions among
those consuming fair-share-units?
(6) If fair-share-units, the production
thereof, suffered problems, is it possible that fair-share-unit production
would have to be “bailed out”?
Economics
is the allocation of scarce resources with alternative uses. If the allocation
thereof, with free participants in a free market is politically framed as
greed, hoarding, 1% vs. 99%, envy, class warfare, and bail outs…. then the
allocation process of fair-share-units would be otherwise?
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